Scenario 1:
Patient with severe back pain, made much worse by a physio, presented only after developing multiple lower limb radiations, difficulty with micturition, and mild priapism. I drove him to A and E and left him there with a handwritten note, and didn't charge anything. Subsequent diagnosis was of severe disc herniation into the canal, but it settled with bed rest, and surgery was decided against. So he then asked if it would be okay for him to go back to the osteopath. The neurologist's reply was that manipulation is contraindicated and referred him to... a physio!
Scenario 2:
Patient with low back pain, diagnosed as ligamentous, but then sought his GP's opinion as he was worried about his prostate. The GP agreed with the diagnosis, prescribed anti-inflammatories, and advised against manual treatment.
I don't wish to seem possessive, but I couldn't help being somewhat miffed at both these situations. Is this common practice? Doesn't the final word on suitability of osteopathic treatment rest with the osteopath?
In addition, our code of practice requires us to respect and cooperate with other professions. Does anyone know if a similar requirement is placed upon doctors?
Finally, now that complementary medicine is included in medical school curricula, will this situation improve?
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